ccna exploration 2 final exam (b)

1. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1. What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for host 192.168.0.26?
• The packet will be dropped
• The packet will be forwarded to the gateway of last resort.
• The packet will match the 192.168.0.0 network and be forwarded out Serial 0/0.
• The packet will most closely match the 192.168.0.8 subnet and be forwarded out Serial 0/1.

2. Which three statements are true of holddown timers? (Choose three.)
• used by link state routing protocols to prevent routing loops
• prevent update messages from reinstating a route that may have gone bad
• allow routers to still forward packets to destination networks that are in holddown
• limit the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded
• prevent a router advertising a network through the same interface from which the network was learned
• permit lower metric updates received from any neighboring router to reinstate the route to a possibly down Network

3. What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0?
• R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
• R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
• R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0
• *R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0

4. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts on the BOS Fa0/0 LAN are able to ping the Fa0/1 interface on the JAX router and all interfaces on the BOS and ORL routers. Why would hosts from the 10.0.0.0/24 network not be able to ping hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN of the JAX router?
• The JAX router has the wrong process ID.
• The JAX router needs the network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
• The JAX router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
• The BOS router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.

5. Refer to the exhibit. Which path will traffic from the 172.16.1.0/24 network take to get to the 10.0.0.0/24 network?
• ADC
• ABC
• It will load balance the traffic between ADC and ABC
• It will send the traffic via ABC, and will use ADC as a backup path only when ABC fails.

6. Refer to the exhibit. Pings are failing between HostA and HostB. The network administrator discovers that Router1 does not have a route to the 172.16.0.0 network. Assuming Router2 is configured correctly, which two static routes could be configured on Router1 to enable Host A to reach network 172.16.0.0? (Choose two.)
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/1
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.1
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.2
• ip route 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0
• ip route 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/1

7. What can be determined from the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
• Annapolis is a 2611 router that is connected to the S0/0 interface of the Montgomery router.
• All of the routers are connected to Montgomery through an Ethernet switch.
• Montgomery has Layer 2 connectivity with Cumberland.
• Layer 3 connectivity is operational for all of the devices listed in the Device ID column.
• An administrator consoled into the Waldorf router can ping the Brant router.
• Brant, Fisherman, and Potomac are directly connected to Montgomery.

8. Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table?
• Both routes are installed and load balancing occurs across both paths.
• The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.
• The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.
• The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.
• The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.

9. Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• They do not work well in networks that require special heirarchical designs.
• They are aware of the complete network topology.
• They pass their entire routing tables to their directly connected neighbors only.
• They offer rapid convergence times in large networks.
• They rely on decreasing hop counts to determine the best path.
• They do not include subnet masks in their routing updates.

10. A network administrator has configured a default route on Router_A but it is not being shared with adjacent Router_B and the other routers in the OSPF area. Which command will save the administrator the time and trouble of configuring this default route on Router_B and all of the other routers in the OSPF area?
• Router_A(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
• Router_B(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
• Router_A(config-router)# default-information originate
• Router_B(config-router)# default-information originate
• Router_A(config-router)# ip ospf update-default
• Router_B(config-router)# ip ospf update-default

11. Refer to the exhibit. What are the effects of the exhibited commands on the router?
All passwords are encrypted.
• Only Telnet sessions are encrypted.
• Only the enable password is encrypted.
• Only the enable password and Telnet session are encrypted.
• Enable and console passwords are encrypted.

12. When presented with multiple valid routes to a destination, what criteria does a router use to determine which routes to add to the routing table?
• The router selects the routes with the best metric. All routes that have the same best metric are added to the routing table.
• The router first selects routes with the lowest administrative distance. The resulting routes are then prioritized by metric and the routes with the best metric are added to the routing table.
• The router selects the routes with the lowest administrative distance. All routes with the same lowest administrative distance are added to the routing table.
• The router installs all routes in the routing table but uses the route with the best metric most when load balancing.

13. Which statement is true regarding routing metrics?
• All routing protocols use the same metrics.
• EIGRP uses bandwidth as its only metric.
• Routers compare metrics to determine the best route.
• The larger metric generally represents the better path.

14. A router has learned about a network through static and dynamic routing processes. Which route will be used to reach network 192.168.168.0?
• D 192.168.168.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Ethernet0
• O 192.168.168.0/24 [110/1012] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:22, Ethernet0
• R 192.168.168.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, Ethernet0
• S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1

15. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)
• The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
• The router changes the source IP to the IP of the exit interface.
• The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
• The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.
• The router changes the destination IP to the IP of the exit interface.
• The router sends the packet out all other interfaces, besides the one it entered the router on.

16. When the show cdp neighbors command is issued from Router C, which devices will be displayed in the output?
• D, SWH-2
• A, B, D
• SWH-1, SWH-2
• B, D
• SWH-1, A, B
• A, B, D, SWH-1, SWH-2

17. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to determine why router JAX has no OSPF routes in its routing table. All routers are configured for OSPF area 0. From the JAX router, the administrator is able to ping its connected interfaces and the Fa0/1 interface of the ORL router but no other router interfaces. What is a logical step that the network administrator should take to troubleshoot the problem?
• Reboot the routers.
• Change the OSPF process ID on all of the routers to 0.
• Check to see if the cable is loose between ORL and JAX.
• Check to see if CDP packets are passing between the routers.
• Use show and debug commands to determine if hellos are propagating.

18. Using default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash?
• Perform the POST routine.
• Search for a backup IOS in ROM.
• Load the bootstrap program from ROM.
• Load the running-config file from RAM.
• Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM.

19. Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to reach the three networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public address space or overlapping the networks on Router1?
• 172.16.0.0/8
• 172.16.0.0/10
• 172.16.0.0/13
• 172.16.0.0/20
• 172.16.0.0/24

20. The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traffic. It is suspected that the problem is with the addressing scheme. What is the problem with the addressing used in the topology?
• The address assigned to the Ethernet0 interface of Router1 is a broadcast address for that subnetwork.
• The subnetwork configured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork
assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.
• The subnetwork assigned to the Serial0 interface of Router1 is on a different subnetwork from the address for
Serial0 of Router2.
• The subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.

21. Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the host address of 192.168.10.31 with a default gateway of 192.168.10.17. • The PC is not communicating with the network properly. What is the cause?
• The address is in the wrong subnet.
• 192.168.10.31 is the broadcast address for this subnet.
• The default gateway is incorrect.
• The host address and default gateway are swapped.

22. Refer to the exhibit. The network is running the RIP routing protocol. Network 10.0.0.0 goes down. Which statement is true regarding how the routers in this topology will respond to this event?
• Router4 will learn about the failed route 30 seconds later in the next periodic update.
• Split horizon will prevent Router4 from forwarding packets to the 10.0.0.0 network until the holddown timer expires.
• Router5 immediately flushes the unreachable route from its routing table.
• Router5 will send Router4 a triggered update with a metric of 16 for network 10.0.0.0.

23. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.)
• The route to network 172.16.0.0 has an AD of 156160.
• Network 192.168.0.16 can best be reached using FastEthernet0/0.
• The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value.
• Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.
• Network 172.17.0.0 can only be reached using a default route.
• No default route has been configured.

24. Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization of the routes attached to router R1?
• 198.18.0.0/16
• 198.18.48.0/21
• 198.18.32.0/22
• 198.18.48.0/23
• 198.18.49.0/23
• 198.18.52.0/22

25. What is the purpose of the TTL field within an IP packet header?
• clears an unreachable route from the routing table after the invalid timer expires
• prevents regular update messages from inappropriately reinstating a route that may have gone bad
• removes an unreachable route from the routing table after the flush timer expires
• limits the period of time or number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it should be
discarded
• used to mark the route as unreachable in a routing update that is sent to other routers

26. Refer to exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are needed to configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three.)
• Paris(config)# router eigrp 100
• Paris(config)# router eigrp
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.6.0
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.7.0
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.8.0
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.9.0

27. What does RIP use to reduce convergence time in a larger network?
• It reduces the update timer to 15 seconds if there are more then 10 routes.
• It uses triggered updates to announce network changes if they happen in between the periodic updates.
• It uses random pings to detect if a pathway is down and therefore is preemptive on finding networks that
are down.
• It uses multicast instead of broadcast to send routing updates.

28. Refer to the exhibit. What two statements are true based on the output shown? (Choose two.)
• the reported distance to network 172.16.1.0 is 2172416
• 192.168.10.5 and 192.168.10.9 are feasible successors
• neighbors 192.168.10.9 and 192.168.10.5 have auto summary disabled
• router 3 is load balancing traffic to the 172.16.3.0 network across its serial interfaces
• all interfaces shown on Router3 are in the passive state and will not send EIGRP advertisements

29. Refer to the exhibit. The network is using the RIPv2 routing protocol. If network 10.0.0.0 goes down, what mechanism will prevent Router1 from advertising false routing information back to Router2?
• triggered updates
• poison reverse
• holddown timers
• split horizon

30. What is the function of the OSPF LSU packet?
• used to confirm receipt of certain types of OSPF packets
• used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers
• used to request more information about any entry in the BDR
• used to announce new OSPF information and to reply to certain types of requests

31. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are running the EIGRP routing protocol. What statement is true regarding how packets will travel from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?
• The router chooses the first path that it learned and installs only that route in the routing table.
• The router chooses the path with the lowest administrative distance and installs only that route in the routing table.
• The router chooses the highest routing ID based on the advertised network IP addresses and installs only that
route in the routing table.
• The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table but sends packets out only one, holding the others
in reserve in case the primary route goes down.
• The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table and performs equal cost load balancing to send
packets out multiple exit interfaces.

32. Refer to the exhibit. A packet enters Router1 with a destination IP of 172.16.28.121. Which routing table entry will be used to forward this packet to the destination address?
• 172.16.0.0/16 [1/0] via 192.168.0.1
• 172.16.0.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.9
• 172.16.16.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.17
• 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/1

33. Refer to the exhibit. Routers 1 and 2 are directly connected over a serial link. Pings are failing between the two routers. What change by the administrator will correct the problem?
• Set the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.
• Decrease the bandwidth on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 1544.
• Change the cable that connects the routers to a crossover cable.
• Change the IP address on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 192.168.0.1/30.

34. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)
• DRAM - loads the bootstrap
• RAM - stores the operating system
• Flash - executes diagnostics at bootup
• NVRAM - stores the configuration file
• ROM - stores the backup configuration file
• POST - runs diagnostics on hardware modules

35. The network administrator configures the router with the ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 command.
How will this route appear in the routing table?
• C 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
• S 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
• C 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2
• S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2

36. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are both level 1 and qualify for use as an ultimate route?
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 6

37. Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A?
• All of the 192.168.x.0 networks will be in the routing table.
• Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing table.
• The routing table will be empty because routes and dynamic routes have not been configured.
• A default route is automatically installed in the routing table to allow connectivity between the networks.

38. Which three statements about routing protocols are true? (Choose three.)
• OSPF elects designated routers on multiaccess links.
• RIP does not support classless routing.
• EIGRP supports unequal cost load balancing.
• EIGRP uses broadcast traffic to establish adjacencies with its neighbors.
• RIP does not advertise a route beyond a hop count of 15.
• OSPF can convergence more quickly because it can find a feasible successor in its topology table when a successor route goes down.

39. Refer to the exhibit. What will happen if interface Serial0/0/1 goes down on Router1?
• The Dijkstra algorithm will calculate the feasible successor.
• DUAL will query neighbors for a route to network 192.168.1.0.
• Neighbor 172.16.3.2 will be promoted to the feasible successor.
• Traffic destined to the 192.168.1.0 network will be dropped immediately due to lack of a feasible successor.

40. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration?
• Using dynamic routing instead of static routing would have required fewer configuration steps.
• The 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 routes have adjacent boudaries and should be summarized.
• The static route will not work correctly.
• *Packets routed to the R2 ethernet interface require two routing table lookups.

41. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?
• A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
• B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64
• A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32
• B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
A(config)# no router rip

42. Which of the following could describe the devices labeled "?" in the graphic? (Choose three.)
• DCE
• CSU/DSU
• LAN switch
• modem
• hub

43. Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process configuration? Choose three.)
• network address
• loopback address
• autonomous system number
• subnet mask
• wildcard mask
• area ID

44. The Suffolk router is directly connected to the networks shown in the graphic and has a default route that points to the Richmond router. All interfaces are active and properly addressed. However, when the workstation on network 172.29.5.0/24 sends a packet to destination address 172.29.198.5, it is discarded by the Suffolk router. What can be a reason for this result?
• The ip classless command is not enabled on the Richmond router.
• The route was ignored if the Richmond router did not include the 172.29.198.0/24 network in its routing updates.
• The Richmond router is in a different autonomous system than the Suffolk router.
• The ip subnet-zero command was not configured on the Suffolk router.
• The ip classless command is not enabled on the Suffolk router.

45. Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network, it is important to interpret the output of various router
commands. On the basis of the exhibit, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
• The missing information for Blank 1 is the command show ip route.
• The missing information for Blank 1 is the command debug ip route.
• The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 100.
• The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120.
• The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter R.
• The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C.

46. Refer to exhibit. A company network engineer enters the following commands in the routers:
R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2
R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1
When the engineer enters the show ip route command on R1, the routing table does not display the static route
to the 10.1.1.0 network. All R1 and R2 interfaces are correctly addressed per the graphic. What is a logical next
step that the engineer could take in order to make the static route display in the routing table in R1?
• Enter default routes in R1 and R2.
• Enable the R1 and R2 serial interfaces.
• Configure the static route to use an exit interface instead of a next-hop address.
• Enter the copy run start command to force the router to recognize the configuration.

47. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing network connectivity by issuing the tracert command from host A to host B. Given the exhibited output on host A, what are two possible routing table issues on the network? (Choose two.)
• Router1 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network
• Router1 is missing a route to the 192.168.1.0 network
• Router2 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network
• Router2 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network
• Router3 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network
• Router3 is missing a route to the 192.168.0.0 network

48. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency?Choose two.)
• The routers must elect a designated router.
• The routers must agree on the network type.
• The routers must use the same dead interval.
• The routers must exchange link state requests.
• The routers must exchange database description packets.

49. Refer to the routing table shown in the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 192?
• It is the value assigned by the Dijkstra algorithm that designates the number of hops in the network.
• It is the value used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link.
• It is the metric, which is cost.
• It is the administrative distance.

50. Refer to the exhibit. The results of the show ip route command are displayed in the graphic for Router R2. Which route will be selected for a packet with a destination address of 10.1.4.1?
• static route to 10.1.0.0/22
• RIP route to 10.1.0.0/23
• RIP route to 10.1.0.0/24
• 0.0.0.0/0 via 192.168.0.1

51. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
• 10.0.0.0/8
• 64.100.0.0/16
• 128.107.0.0/16
• 172.16.40.0/24
• 192.168.1.0/24
• 192.168.2.0/24

52. Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)
• packet switching
• microsegmentation
• domain name resolution
• path selection
• flow control

53. What are three features of CDP? (Choose three.)
• tests Layer 2 connectivity
• provides a layer of security
• operates a OSI layers 2 and 3
• enabled by default on each interface
• used for debugging Layer 4 connectivity issues
• provides information on directly connected devices that have CDP enabled

54Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are running RIPv2 and EIGRP with default routing protocol settings and have interfaces configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the exhibit. Which protocol will be used and how will traffic between the Router1 LAN and Router5 LAN be routed through the network?
• RIPv2 will load balance across both paths between Router1 and Router5.
• EIGRP will load balance across both paths between Router1 and Router5.
• RIPv2 traffic will use the path Router1, Router2, Router5 because it has the least hops.
• EIGRP traffic will use the path Router1, Router3, Router4, Router5 because it has the best metric.

55. Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three.)
• As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table.
• If the feasible successor has a higher advertised cost than the current successor route, then it becomes the primary route.
• If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the topology.
• The reported distance is the distance to a destination as advertised by a neighbor.
• EIGRP maintains full knowledge of the network topology in the topology table and exchanges full routing information with neighboring routers in every update.
• EIGRP builds one routing table that contains routes for all configured routed protocols.

56. Which of the following should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose three.)
• OSPF interval timers mismatch
• gateway of last resort not redistributed
• interface network type mismatch
• no loopback interface configured
• administrative distance mismatch
• inconsistent authentication configuration

57. What is the first step OSPF and IS-IS routers take in building a shortest path first database?
• learn about directly connected networks
• send hello to discover neighbors and form adjacencies
• choose successors and feasible successors to populate the topology table
• flood LSPs to all neighbors informing them of all known networks and their link states

ccna exploration 2 final exam (a)

1. Refer to the exhibit. A new PC was deployed in the Sales network. It was given the host address of 192.168.10.31 with a default gateway of 192.168.10.17. The PC is not communicating with the network properly. What is the cause?
• The address is in the wrong subnet.
• 192.168.10.31 is the broadcast address for this subnet.
• The default gateway is incorrect.
• The host address and default gateway are swapped.

2. Refer to the routing table shown in the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value 192?
• It is the value assigned by the Dijkstra algorithm that designates the number of hops in the network.
• It is the value used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link.
• It is the metric, which is cost.
• It is the administrative distance.

3. Refer to exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are needed to configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three.)
• Paris(config)# router eigrp 100
• Paris(config)# router eigrp
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.6.0
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.7.0
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.8.0
• Paris(config-router)# network 192.168.9.0

4. What are three features of CDP? (Choose three.)
• tests Layer 2 connectivity
• provides a layer of security
• operates a OSI layers 2 and 3
• enabled by default on each interface
• used for debugging Layer 4 connectivity issues
• provides information on directly connected devices that have CDP enabled

5. Refer to the exhibit. What two statements are true based on the output shown? (Choose two.)
• the reported distance to network 172.16.1.0 is 2172416
• 192.168.10.5 and 192.168.10.9 are feasible successors
• neighbors 192.168.10.9 and 192.168.10.5 have auto summary disabled.
• router 3 is load balancing traffic to the 172.16.3.0 network across its serial interfaces.
• all interfaces shown on Router3 are in the passive state and will not send EIGRP advertisements

6. Which of the following should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose three.)
• OSPF interval timers mismatch
• gateway of last resort not redistributed
• interface network type mismatch
• no loopback interface configured
• administrative distance mismatch
• inconsistent authentication configuration

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true of the routing table for Router1? (Choose three.)
• The route to network 172.16.0.0 has an AD of 156160.
• Network 192.168.0.16 can best be reached using FastEthernet0/0.
• The AD of EIGRP routes has been manually changed to a value other than the default value.
• Router1 is running both the EIGRP and OSPF routing process.
• Network 172.17.0.0 can only be reached using a default route.
• No default route has been configured.

8. Refer to the exhibit. The ORL router is unable to form a neighbor relationship with the JAX router. What is a possible cause of this problem?
• Router JAX has the wrong autonomous-system number.
• The command network 192.168.2.0 is missing from the EIGRP configuration on the JAX router.
• Automatic summarization is not disabled on the JAX router.
• Router JAX has the wrong IP address on the Fa0/1 interface.

9. Which statement is true regarding routing metrics?
• All routing protocols use the same metrics.
• EIGRP uses bandwidth as its only metric.
• Routers compare metrics to determine the best route.
• The larger metric generally represents the better path.

10. Which three statements are true of holddown timers? (Choose three.)
• used by link state routing protocols to prevent routing loops
• prevent update messages from reinstating a route that may have gone bad
• allow routers to still forward packets to destination networks that are in holddown
• limit the number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it is discarded
• prevent a router advertising a network through the same interface from which the network was learned
permit lower metric updates received from any neighboring router to reinstate the route to a possibly down network

11. A router has learned about a network through static and dynamic routing processes. Which route will be used to reach network 192.168.168.0?
• D 192.168.168.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, Ethernet0
• O 192.168.168.0/24 [110/1012] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:22, Ethernet0
• R 192.168.168.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, Ethernet0
• S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1

12. The Suffolk router is directly connected to the networks shown in the graphic and has a default route that points to the Richmond router. All interfaces are active and properly addressed. However, when the workstation on network 172.29.5.0/24 sends a packet to destination address 172.29.198.5, it is discarded by the Suffolk router. What can be a reason for this result?
• The ip classless command is not enabled on the Richmond router.
• The route was ignored if the Richmond router did not include the 172.29.198.0/24 network in its routing updates.
• The Richmond router is in a different autonomous system than the Suffolk router.
• The ip subnet-zero command was not configured on the Suffolk router.
• The ip classless command is not enabled on the Suffolk router.

13. Which three statements are true regarding the encapsulation and de-encapsulation of packets when traveling through a router? (Choose three.)
• The router modifies the TTL field, decrementing it by one.
• The router changes the source IP to the IP of the exit interface.
• The router maintains the same source and destination IP.
• The router changes the source physical address to the physical address of the exit interface.
• The router changes the destination IP to the IP of the exit interface.
• The router sends the packet out all other interfaces, besides the one it entered the router on.

14. Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process configuration? (Choose three.)
• network address
• loopback address
• autonomous system number
• subnet mask
• wildcard mask
• area ID

15. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are running the EIGRP routing protocol. What statement is true regarding how packets will travel from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?
• The router chooses the first path that it learned and installs only that route in the routing table.
• The router chooses the path with the lowest administrative distance and installs only that route in the routing table.
• The router chooses the highest routing ID based on the advertised network IP addresses and installs only that route in the routing table.
• The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table but sends packets out only one, holding the others in reserve in case the primary route goes down.
• The router installs all the equal cost paths in the routing table and performs equal cost load balancing to send packets out multiple exit interfaces.

16. Which of the following could describe the devices labeled "?" in the graphic? (Choose three.)
• DCE
• CSU/DSU
• LAN switch
• Modem
• hub

17. Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three.)
• As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table.
• If the feasible successor has a higher advertised cost than the current successor route, then it becomes the primary route.
• If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the topology.
• The reported distance is the distance to a destination as advertised by a neighbor.
• EIGRP maintains full knowledge of the network topology in the topology table and exchanges full routing information with neighboring routers in every update.
• EIGRP builds one routing table that contains routes for all configured routed protocols.

18. The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traffic. It is suspected that the problem is with the addressing scheme. What is the problem with the addressing used in the topology?
• The address assigned to the Ethernet0 interface of Router1 is a broadcast address for that subnetwork.
• The subnetwork configured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.
• The subnetwork assigned to the Serial0 interface of Router1 is on a different subnetwork from the address for Serial0 of Router2.
• The subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.

19. Refer to the exhibit. Packets destined to which two networks will require the router to perform a recursive lookup? (Choose two.)
• 10.0.0.0/8
• 64.100.0.0/16
• 128.107.0.0/16
• 172.16.40.0/24
• 192.168.1.0/24
• 192.168.2.0/24

20. Refer to exhibit. A company network engineer enters the following commands in the routers:R1(config)# ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2R2(config)# ip route 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.1When the engineer enters the show ip route command on R1, the routing table does not display the static route to the 10.1.1.0 network. All R1 and R2 interfaces are correctly addressed per the graphic. What is a logical next step that the engineer could take in order to make the static route display in the routing table in R1?
• Enter default routes in R1 and R2.
• Enable the R1 and R2 serial interfaces.
• Configure the static route to use an exit interface instead of a next-hop address.
• Enter the copy run start command to force the router to recognize the configuration.

21. When the show cdp neighbors command is issued from Router C, which devices will be displayed in the output?
• D, SWH-2
• A, B, D
• SWH-1, SWH-2
• B, D
• SWH-1, A, B
• A, B, D, SWH-1, SWH-2

22. Refer to the exhibit. R1 knows two routes, Path A and Path B, to the Ethernet network attached to R3. R1 learned Path A to network 10.2.0.0/16 from a static route and Path B to network 10.2.0.0/16 from EIGRP. Which route will R1 install in its routing table?
• Both routes are installed and load balancing occurs across both paths.
• The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.
• The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the best metric to network 10.2.0.0/16.
• The route via Path B is installed because the EIGRP route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.
• The route via Path A is installed because the static route has the lowest administrative distance to network 10.2.0.0/16.

23. A network administrator has enabled RIP on routers B and C in the network diagram. Which of the following commands will prevent RIP updates from being sent to Router A?
• A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
• B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.48
B(config-router)# network 192.168.25.64
• A(config)# router rip
A(config-router)# no network 192.168.25.32
• B(config)# router rip
B(config-router)# passive-interface S0/0
• A(config)# no router rip

24. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is testing network connectivity by issuing the tracert command from host A to host B. Given the exhibited output on host A, what are two possible routing table issues on the network? (Choose two.)
• Router1 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network
• Router1 is missing a route to the 192.168.1.0 network
• Router2 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network
• Router2 is missing a route to the 172.16.0.0 network
• Router3 is missing a route to the 10.0.0.0 network
• Router3 is missing a route to the 192.168.0.0 network

25. Refer to the exhibit. What will happen if interface Serial0/0/1 goes down on Router1?
• The Dijkstra algorithm will calculate the feasible successor.
• DUAL will query neighbors for a route to network 192.168.1.0.
• Neighbor 172.16.3.2 will be promoted to the feasible successor.
• Traffic destined to the 192.168.1.0 network will be dropped immediately due to lack of a feasible successor.

26. Refer to the exhibit. Pings are failing between HostA and HostB. The network administrator discovers that Router1 does not have a route to the 172.16.0.0 network. Assuming Router2 is configured correctly, which two static routes could be configured on Router1 to enable Host A to reach network 172.16.0.0? (Choose two.)
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/1
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.1
• ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.2
• ip route 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0
• ip route 192.168.0.1 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/1

27. Refer to the exhibit. The results of the show ip route command are displayed in the graphic for Router R2. Which route will be selected for a packet with a destination address of 10.1.4.1?
• static route to 10.1.0.0/22
• RIP route to 10.1.0.0/23
• RIP route to 10.1.0.0/24
• 0.0.0.0/0 via 192.168.0.1

28. Refer to the exhibit. The network is running the RIP routing protocol. Network 10.0.0.0 goes down. Which statement is true regarding how the routers in this topology will respond to this event?
• Router4 will learn about the failed route 30 seconds later in the next periodic update.
• Split horizon will prevent Router4 from fowarding packets to the 10.0.0.0 network until the holddown timer expires.
• Router5 immediately flushes the unreachable route from its routing table.
• Router5 will send Router4 a triggered update with a metric of 16 for network 10.0.0.0.

29. Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network, it is important to interpret the output of various router commands. On the basis of the exhibit, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
• The missing information for Blank 1 is the command show ip route.
• The missing information for Blank 1 is the command debug ip route.
• The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 100.
• The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120.
• The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter R.
• The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C.

30. A network administrator has configured a default route on Router_A but it is not being shared with adjacent Router_B and the other routers in the OSPF area. Which command will save the administrator the time and trouble of configuring this default route on Router_B and all of the other routers in the OSPF area?
• Router_A(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
• Router_B(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
• Router_A(config-router)# default-information originate
• Router_B(config-router)# default-information originate
• Router_A(config-router)# ip ospf update-default
• Router_B(config-router)# ip ospf update-default

31. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator issues the command no ip classless on Router1. What forwarding action will take place on a packet that is received by Router1 and is destined for host 192.168.0.26?
• The packet will be dropped.
• The packet will be forwarded to the gateway of last resort.
• The packet will match the 192.168.0.0 network and be forwarded out Serial 0/0.
• The packet will most closely match the 192.168.0.8 subnet and be forwarded out Serial 0/1.

32. Refer to the exhibit. A packet enters Router1 with a destination IP of 172.16.28.121. Which routing table entry will be used to forward this packet to the destination address?
• 172.16.0.0/16 [1/0] via 192.168.0.1
• 172.16.0.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.9
• 172.16.16.0/20 [1/0] via 192.168.0.17
• 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, Serial0/0/1

33. The network administrator configures the router with the ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 command. How will this route appear in the routing table?
• C 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
• S 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0
• C 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2
• S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2

34. Using default settings, what is the next step in the router boot sequence after the IOS loads from flash?
• Perform the POST routine.
• Search for a backup IOS in ROM.
• Load the bootstrap program from ROM.
• Load the running-config file from RAM.
• Locate and load the startup-config file from NVRAM.

35. What does RIP use to reduce convergence time in a larger network?
• It reduces the update timer to 15 seconds if there are more then 10 routes.
• It uses triggered updates to announce network changes if they happen in between the periodic updates.
• It uses random pings to detect if a pathway is down and therefore is preemptive on finding networks that are down.
• It uses multicast instead of broadcast to send routing updates.

36. Refer to the exhibit. What are the effects of the exhibited commands on the router?
• All passwords are encrypted.
• Only Telnet sessions are encrypted.
• Only the enable password is encrypted.
• Only the enable password and Telnet session are encrypted.
• Enable and console passwords are encrypted.

37. Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization of the routes attached to router R1?
• 198.18.0.0/16
• 198.18.48.0/21
• 198.18.32.0/22
• 198.18.48.0/23
• 198.18.49.0/23
• 198.18.52.0/22

38. Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational. If no routing protocols or static routes are configured, what information will be included in the show ip route command output for router A?
• All of the 192.168.x.0 networks will be in the routing table.
• Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the routing table.
• The routing table will be empty because routes and dynamic routes have not been configured.
• A default route is automatically installed in the routing table to allow connectivity between the networks.

39. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are both level 1 and qualify for use as an ultimate route?
• 1
• 2
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 6

40. When presented with multiple valid routes to a destination, what criteria does a router use to determine which routes to add to the routing table?
• The router selects the routes with the best metric. All routes that have the same best metric are added to the routing table.
• The router first selects routes with the lowest administrative distance. The resulting routes are then prioritized by metric and the routes with the best metric are added to the routing table.
• The router selects the routes with the lowest administrative distance. All routes with the same lowest administrative distance are added to the routing table.
• The router installs all routes in the routing table but uses the route with the best metric most when load balancing.

41. Refer to the exhibit. What summary address can Router2 advertise to Router1 to reach the three networks on Routers 3, 4, and 5 without advertising any public address space or overlapping the networks on Router1?
• 172.16.0.0/8
• 172.16.0.0/10
• 172.16.0.0/13
• 172.16.0.0/20
• 172.16.0.0/24

42. What is the purpose of the TTL field within an IP packet header?
• clears an unreachable route from the routing table after the invalid timer expires.
• prevents regular update messages from inappropriately reinstating a route that may have gone bad.
• removes an unreachable route from the routing table after the flush timer expires
• limits the period of time or number of hops a packet can traverse through the network before it should be discarded.
• used to mark the route as unreachable in a routing update that is sent to other routers

43. Refer to the exhibit. Hosts on the BOS Fa0/0 LAN are able to ping the Fa0/1 interface on the JAX router and all interfaces on the BOS and ORL routers. Why would hosts from the 10.0.0.0/24 network not be able to ping hosts on the Fa0/0 LAN of the JAX router?
• The JAX router has the wrong process ID.
• The JAX router needs the network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
• The JAX router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.
• The BOS router needs the network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command.

44. What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0?
• R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
• R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
• R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0
• R1(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0

45. What are two tasks that must be completed before two routers can use OSPF to form a neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)
• The routers must elect a designated router.
• The routers must agree on the network type.
• The routers must use the same dead interval.
• The routers must exchange link state requests.
• The routers must exchange database description packets

46. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true concerning the routing configuration?
• Using dynamic routing instead of static routing would have required fewer configuration steps.
• The 10.1.1.0/24 and 10.1.2.0/24 routes have adjacent boudaries and should be summarized.
• The static route will not work correctly.
• Packets routed to the R2 ethernet interface require two routing table lookups.

47. What can be determined from the output shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)
• Annapolis is a 2611 router that is connected to the S0/0 interface of the Montgomery router.
• All of the routers are connected to Montgomery through an Ethernet switch.
• Montgomery has Layer 2 connectivity with Cumberland.
• Layer 3 connectivity is operational for all of the devices listed in the Device ID column.
• An administrator consoled into the Waldorf router can ping the Brant router.
• Brant, Fisherman, and Potomac are directly connected to Montgomery.

48. What is the function of the OSPF LSU packet?
• used to confirm receipt of certain types of OSPF packets
• used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSPF routers
• used to request more information about any entry in the BDR
• used to announce new OSPF information and to reply to certain types of requests

50. Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are running RIPv2 and EIGRP with default routing protocol settings and have interfaces configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the exhibit. Which protocol will be used and how will traffic between the Router1 LAN and Router5 LAN be routed through the network?
• RIPv2 will load balance across both paths between Router1 and Router5.
• EIGRP will load balance across both paths between Router1 and Router5.
• RIPv2 traffic will use the path Router1, Router2, Router5 because it has the least hops.
• EIGRP traffic will use the path Router1, Router3, Router4, Router5 because it has the best metric.

51. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is trying to figure out why BOS does not have the 10.0.0.0/24 network in its routing table. All routers are configured for OSPF in area 0. The links between the routers are operational and the administrator is able to ping between all router interfaces. What is a logical next step that the network administrator should take to troubleshoot the problem?
• Reboot the routers.
• Change the OSPF process ID on all of the routers to 0.
• Check to see if the cable is loose between BOS and JAX.
• Check to see if CDP packets are passing between the routers.
• Use show and debug commands to determine if hellos are propagating.

52. Refer to the exhibit. The network is using the RIPv2 routing protocol. If network 10.0.0.0 goes down, what mechanism will prevent Router1 from advertising false routing information back to Router2?
• triggered updates
• poison reverse
• holddown timers
• split horizon

53. Which two router component and operation pair are correctly described? (Choose two.)
• DRAM -loads the bootstrap
• RAM -stores the operating system
• Flash -executes diagnostics at bootup
• NVRAM -stores the configuration file
• ROM -stores the backup configuration file
• POST -runs diagnostics on hardware modules

54. Which of the following are primary functions of a router? (Choose two.)
• packet switching
• microsegmentation
• domain name resolution
• path selection
• flow control

55. Refer to the exhibit. Which path will traffic from the 172.16.1.0/24 network take to get to the 10.0.0.0/24 network?
• ADC
• ABC
• It will load balance the traffic between ADC and ABC
• It will send the traffic via ABC, and will use ADC as a backup path only when ABC fails.

56. Refer to the exhibit. Routers 1 and 2 are directly connected over a serial link. Pings are failing between the two routers. What change by the administrator will correct the problem?
• Set the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.
• Decrease the bandwidth on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 1544.
• Change the cable that connects the routers to a crossover cable.
• Change the IP address on Serial 0/1/0 on router 2 to 192.168.0.1/30.

57. Which two statements are true regarding link-state routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• They do not work well in networks that require special heirarchical designs.
• They are aware of the complete network topology.
• They pass their entire routing tables to their directly connected neighbors only.
• They offer rapid convergence times in large networks.
• They rely on decreasing hop counts to determine the best path.
• They do not include subnet masks in their routing updates.

58. Which three statements about routing protocols are true? (Choose three.)
• OSPF elects designated routers on multiaccess links.
• RIP does not support classless routing.
• EIGRP supports unequal cost load balancing.
• EIGRP uses broadcast traffic to establish adjacencies with its neighbors.
• RIP does not advertise a route beyond a hop count of 15.
• OSPF can convergence more quickly because it can find a feasible successor in its topology table when a successor route goes down.

ccna exploration 2 module 11

1. Refer to the exhibit. What does the "O*E2" from the "O*E2 0.0.0.0/0 [110/1] via 192.168.1.1, 00:05:34, Serial0/0" line represent?
• an external OSPF route that will not increment in cost.

2. Refer to the exhibit. What is the cost of the route to the 10.0.0.0 network?
• 1786

3. What three parameters must be indentical between OSPF routers in order to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)
• area id
• hello interval
• network type

4. What does OSPF use to reduce the number of exchanges of routing information in networks where large numbers of neighbors are present? (Choose two.)
• designated router
• backup designated router

5. What does OSPF use to calculate the cost to a destination network?
• bandwidth

6. A fully converged five router OSPF network has been running successfully for several weeks. All configurations have been saved and no static routes are used. If one router looses power and reboots, what information will be in its routing table after the configuration file is loaded but before OSPF has converged?
• Routes for connected networks that are operational will be in the routing table.

7. Refer to the exhibit. Router A is correctly configured for OSPF. Which OSPF configuration statement or set of statements was entered for router B to generate the exhibited routing table?
• B(config-router)# network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which network command or set of sommands will cause OSPF to be enabled to send and receive packets for any R1 interface in the exhibited subnets?
• R1(config-router)# network 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 area 0

9. Refer to the exhibit. What does the "2" stand for in the router ospf 2 statement?
• The number 2 identifies this particular instance of OSPF on this router.

10. Refer to the exhibit. All routers have been configured with the interface priorities that are shown. All routers were restarted simultaneously. The results of the DR/BDR election are shown. What can be concluded about this network?
• The highest router ID was most likely determined via an OSPF router-id statement or statements.

11. Refer to the exhibit. What configuration statements would give the results that are shown in the output of the show ip protocols command?
• B(config)# router ospf 1B(config-router)# router-id 192.168.1.5

12. Refer to the exhibit. How many OSPF adjacencies must be formed to build the complete topology if a DR or BDR were not elected in this OSPF network?
• 6

13. What is the default administrative distance for OSPF?
• 110

14. Refer to the exhibit. Routers A, B, C, and D are all running OSPF with default router IDs and OSPF interface priorities. Loopback interfaces are not configured and all interfaces are operational. Router D is the DR and router C is the BDR. What happens immediately after the following commands are entered on router A?
• A(config)# interface fa0/0
A(config-if)# ip ospf priority 255
D will remain the DR. C will remain the BDR.

15. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running OSPF. What cost would JAX put in its routing table for the 10.0.0.0/24 network?
• 1787

16. What range of networks will be advertised in the OSPF updates by the command Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 100?
• 192.168.0.0/24 through 192.168.15.0/24

17. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to set the router ID of Router1 to 192.168.100.1. What steps must the administrator take to accomplish this?
• nothing, the router-id of Router1 is already 192.168.100.1

18. Refer to the exhibit. When OSPF is operational in the exhibited network, what neighbor relationship is developed between Router1 and Router2?
• A FULL adjacency is formed.

19. Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that the routers have default interface OSPF priorities and no configured loopback interfaces, what two roles will router B play on each network segment? (Choose two.)
• DR for network 192.168.1.200
• BDR for network 192.168.1.204

20. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running OSPF. The show ip ospf neighbor command reveals no neighbors. What is a possible cause?
• OSPF hello or dead timers do not match

21. Refer to the exhibit. Which command sequence on RouterB will redistribute a gateway of last resort to the other routers in OSPF area 0?
• RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# default-information originate

22. Refer to the exhibit. RouterA, RouterB, and RouterC in the diagram are running OSPF on their Ethernet interfaces. Router D was just added to the network. Routers are configured with the loopback interfaces (Lo 0) that are shown in the exhibit. What happens to the OSPF DR/BDR after RouterD is added to the network?
• There is no change in the DR or BDR until either current DR or BDR goes down.

23. Which two statements describe the use of OSPF DR/BDR elections? (Choose two.)
• Elections are required in broadcast multiaccess networks.
• Elections are required in non-broadcast multiaccess networks.

24. Refer to the exhibit. The routers in the exhibit are using default OSPF configuration settings to advertise all attached networks. If all of the routers start at the same time, what will be the result of the DR and BDR elections for this single area OSPF network? (Choose three.)
• Router A will be DR for 10.4.0.0/16.
• HQ will be BDR for 10.4.0.0/16.
• Remote will be DR for 10.5.0.0/16.

25. Refer to the exhibit. What must be received between neighbors to prevent the dead time that is shown in the exhibit from reaching zero?
• hello packets

ccna exploration 2 module 10

1. Refer to the exhibit. When Router D is configured to use a link-state routing protocol and is added to the network, what is the first thing that it does to begin learning the network topology?
• It learns about its directly connected networks when its interfaces reach the up state.

2. What two events will cause a link state router to send LSPs to all neighbors? (Choose two.)
• whenever the network topology changes
• upon initial startup of router or routing protocol

3. What is the final step in the link state routing process?
• SPF computes best path to each destination network

4. What two statements correctly describe the link state routing process? (Choose two.)
• each router in the area floods LSPs to all neighborsall routers in the area have identical link state databases.

5. Refer to the exhibit. What kind of information would be seen in an LSP sent from router JAX to router ATL?
• cost of the link

6. What feature do modern link-state protocols provide to minimize processing and memory requirements?
• splitting routing topologies into smaller areas

7. To achieve network convergence, what three steps does each link state router take? (Choose three.)
• build a Link State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each directly connected link.
• flood the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received in a database.
• construct a complete map of the topology and compute the best path to each destination network.

8. What speeds up convergence in a network using link-state routing?
• updates triggered by network changes

9. Why is it difficult for routing loops to occur in networks that use link-state routing?
• Each router builds a complete and synchronized view of the network.

10. What are some of the advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)
• Routers have direct knowledge of all links in the network and how they are connected.
• After the inital LSA flooding, they generally require less bandwidth to communicate changes in a topology.

11. Which algorithm is run by link-state routing protocols to calculate the shortest path to destination networks?
• Dijkstra

12. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes the path traffic would take from the 10.0.0.0/24 network to the 192.168.1.0/24 network if a link-state routing protocol was in use?
• BOS -> ORL -> JAX -> ATL because this path is the lowest cost

13. Which database or table must be identical on all link-state routers within an area in order to construct an accurate SPF tree?
• link-state database

14. Which two routing protocols use Dijkstra’s shortest path first algorithm? (Choose two.)
• IS-IS
• OSPF

15. When are link-state packets sent to neighbors?
• when a link goes up or down

16. Refer to the exhibit. What does JAX do with link-state packets from ORL?
• sends out the individual link-state packets out the interface connected to BOS

17. A new network administrator is given the task of selecting an appropriate dynamic routing protocol for a software development company. The company has over 100 routers, uses CIDR and VLSM, requires fast convergence, and uses both Cisco and non-Cisco equipment. Which routing protocol is appropriate for this company?
• OSPF

18. What action does a link-state router take immediately upon receipt of an LSP from a neighboring router?
• floods the LSP to neighbors

19. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers and interfaces are configured to use a link-state routing protocol, from which routers will router D receive hello packets?
• B and C

ccna exploration 2 module 9

1. What two actions will the EIGRP DUAL FSM take if a link to a network goes down? (Choose two.)
• put the route into passive mode
• query neighbors for a new route
• search routing table for a feasible successor
• run the SPF algorithm to find a new successor
• search topology table for a feasible successor

2. Host 192.168.1.66 in the network illustrated is unable to ping host 192.168.1.130. How must EIGRP be configured to
enable connectivity between the two hosts? (Choose two.)
• R1(config-router)# network 192.168.1.128
• R1(config-router)# auto-summary
• R1(config-router)# no auto-summary
• R2(config-router)# no auto-summary
• R2(config-router)# auto-summary
• R2(config-router)# network 192.168.1.64

3. Refer to the exhibit. The company is using EIGRP with an autonomous system number of 10. Pings between
hosts on networks that are connected to router A and those that are connected to router B are successful.
However, users on the 192.168.3.0 network are unable to reach users on the 192.168.1.32 network. What is the
most likely cause of this problem?
• IP classless is enabled and is causing the packet to drop.
• The command network 192.168.1.32 was not issued on router C.
• The routers are not configured in the same EIGRP routing domain.
• Automatic summarization of the networks is causing the subnetted routes to be dropped.

4. What information is maintained in the EIGRP topology database for a destination route? (Choose three.)
• the routing protocol
• the feasible distance of the route
• the highest cost of the route
• the SRTT value for the route
• the route cost as advertised by the neighboring router
• the physical address of the gateway interface

5. On a router running EIGRP, what database would maintain a list of feasible successors?
• routing table
• neighbor table
• topology table
• adjacency table

6. Refer to the exhibit. What is indicated by the P at the beginning of the topology entry?
• the route is in a stable state
• the route is a preferred route
• DUAL is searching for a better route to this destination
• the exit interface is in passive mode and EIGRP advertisements are blocked

7. In the command router eigrp 20, what is the purpose of the number 20?
• specifies the administrative distance for all EIGRP routes
• identifies the autonomous system number this EIGRP process will advertise
• determines what metric is added to all advertised routes
• indicates the number of addresses in the EIGRP routing domain

8. Refer to the exhibit. In the topology table, what do the numbers 3011840 and 3128695 represent?
• the route metric that is applied to those EIGRP routes for this router
• the trustworthiness of the routing information source
• the composite of the hop count and bandwidth to that destination network
• the total metric for that network as advertised by the EIGRP neighbor

9. Which two statements describe characteristics of EIGRP? (Choose two.)
• EIGRP is a distance vector routing protocol.
• EIGRP supports classless routing and VLSM.
• EIGRP is classified as a link-state routing protocol.
• EIGRP uses TCP for reliable delivery of EIGRP update packets.
• With EIGRP, loop-free paths are achieved through the use of hold-down timers.
• EIGRP sends a periodic update every 30 minutes.

10. Refer to the exhibit. Network 192.168.0.0/28 goes down. What type of packet does Router2 immediately send
to Router1 and Router3?
• a query for network 192.168.0.0/28
• an acknowledgment packet to 224.0.0.9
• an update packet that is sent to 255.255.255.255
• a packet that contains the new routing table for R2
• unicast update packets to 192.168.1.1 and 192.168.2.1

11. Refer to the exhibit. Network 192.168.0.0/28 goes down. What type of packet does Router2 immediately send
to Router1 and Router3?
• a query for network 192.168.0.0/28
• an acknowledgment packet to 224.0.0.9
• an update packet that is sent to 255.255.255.255
• a packet that contains the new routing table for R2
• unicast update packets to 192.168.1.1 and 192.168.2.1

12. What administrative distance would a router assign to a default route in EIGRP that is learned from a source
external to the autonomous system?
• 1
• 5
• 70
• 90
• 170
• 190

13. In which of the following tables does the EIGRP DUAL algorithm store the primary route to a destination?
(Choose two.)
• routing
• topology
• neighbor
• path
• shortest path

14. Which of the following types of routes will be denoted by EX in EIGRP routing table entries? (Choose two.)
• routes learned from other routing protocols
• routes learned from any non-adjacent EIGRP routers
• any route with a hop count metric higher than 224
• EIGRP routes that originate in different autonomous systems
• all passive routes in the routing table

15. Which term defines a collection of networks under the administrative control of a single entity that presents a
common routing policy to the Internet?
• autonomous system
• contiguous networks
• process ID
• BGP

16. Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP is the only routing protocol enabled on this network. No static routes are c
on this router. What can be concluded about network 198.18.1.0/24 from the exhibited output?
• A route to network 198.18.1.0/24 is not listed in the routing table.
• Packets that are destined for 198.18.1.0/24 will be forwarded to 198.18.10.6.
• EIGRP will perform equal cost load balancing across two paths when forwarding packets to 198.18

17. The router with interface 172.16.3.2 is a successor for network 198.18.1.0/24.
Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces have been configured with the bandwidths that are shown in the example
Assuming that all routers are using a default configuration of EIGRP as their routing protocol, what
packets take from the 172.16.1.0/16 network to the 192.168.200.0/24 network?
• A,B,E
• A,C,E
• A,D,E
• Packets will load balance across the A,B,E and A,C,E paths.
• Packets will load balance across the A,B,E and A,D,E paths.
• Packets will load balance across the A,C,E and A,D,E paths.

18. By default, which two metrics are used by EIGRP to determine the best path between networks?
• MTU
• load
• delay
• bandwidth
• reliability

19. Which of the following statements describes the bounded updates used by EIGRP?
Bounded updates are sent to all routers within an autonomous system.
• Partial updates are sent only to routers that need the information.
The updates are sent to all routers in the routing table.
Updates are bounded by the routers in the topology table.

20. The show ip eigrp topology command output on a router displays a successor route and a feasible successor
route to network 192.168.1.0/24. In order to reduce processor utilization, what does EIGRP do when the
primary route to this network fails?
• The router sends query packets to all EIGRP neighbors for a better route to network 192.168.1.0/24.
• The DUAL FSM immediately recomputes the algorithm to calculate the next backup route.
• Packets that are destined for network 192.168.1.0/24 are sent out the default gateway instead.
• The backup route to network 192.168.1.0/24 is installed in the routing table.

21. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output of show ip eigrp neighbors, what are two possible problems with
adjacencies between Router1 and Router2? (Choose two.)
• The routers are configured with different EIGRP process IDs.
• Automatic summarization was disabled.
• The hello timer for R1 was altered.
• The serial interfaces for both routers are in different networks.
• No feasible successors were found.

22. Refer to the exhibit. This is the debug output from 2 directly connected EIGRP routers. They are not
forming an adjacency. What is the cause?
• one router is a non-cisco router
• they have different autonomous-system numbers
• they are using difference sequence numbers
• they are sending incorrect hello types

23. Refer to the exhibit. Which command will advertise the 192.168.1.64/30 network but not the 192.168.1.32
network on router A?
• network 192.168.1.0
• network 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0
• network 192.168.1.64 0.0.0.3
• network 192.168.1.64 0.0.0.7
• network 192.168.1.64 0.0.0.255

ccna exploration 2 module 8

1. Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from this output?
• The router will have to perform recursive lookups to forward a packet destined for 192.168.2.213/24.
• The parent route for these networks was removed from the routing table.
• A route to 192.168.0.0/25 would be classified as a supernet route for the routes listed in the routing table.
• All of the routes listed are network routes.

2. Refer to the exhibit. A packet destined for host 128.107.0.5/16 is processed by the JAX router. After finding the static route in the routing table that matches the destination network for this packet, what does the router do next?
• searches for a default route to forward the packet
• drops the packet since the static route does not have an exit interface
• performs a recursive lookup to find the exit interface used to forward the packet
• sends a request to neighboring routers for the location of the 128.107.0.0 network

3. Refer to the exhibit. What parent network will automatically be included in the routing table when the three subnets are configured on Router1?
• 172.16.0.0/16
• 172.16.0.0/24
• 172.16.0.0/30
• 172.16.1.0/16

4. The following entry is displayed in the routing table:
• R 192.168.8.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.4.1, 00:00:26, Serial0/0/1
• What type of route is this?
• a level 1 parent route
• a level 1 supernet route
• a level 1 ultimate network route
• a level 2 child route
• a level 2 ultimate child route

5. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is running IOS version 12.2. What will the network administrator need to do so that packets for unknown child routes of 172.16.0.0/24 will not be dropped?
• issue the ip default-network command
• use a classful routing protocol such as RIPv1
• enable either OSPF or ISIS as the routing protocol
• issue the ip classless command
• do nothing, ip classless is on by default

6. Refer to the exhibit. Router B receives a packet with a destination address of 10.16.1.97. What will router B do?
• drop the packet
• forward the packet via the route to 10.16.1.0
• forward the packet via the route to 10.16.1.64
• use the default route

7. Refer to the exhibit. How many routes in this output qualify for use as ultimate routes?
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 6
• 7
• 8

8. Refer to the exhibit. With the ip classless command issued, what will router R2 do with a packet destined for host 172.16.4.234?
• drop the packet
• send packet out Serial 0/0/1
• send packet to network 0.0.0.0
• send packet out FastEthernet 0/0

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes this network?
• EIGRP is being used
• There is at least one parent and one child route
• 192.168.2.0, 192.168.3.0, and 192.168.4.0 networks are child routes
• Traffic going to 172.16.3.0 will be directed to s 0/0/1

10. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 has been issued the ip classless command. What happens to packets destined to host 172.16.3.10?
• they are dropped
• sent to default gateway
• forward out interface Serial0/0/1
• forward out interface FastEthernet 0/0

11. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has discovered that packets destined for servers on the 172.16.254.0 network are being dropped by Router2. What command should the administrator issue to ensure that these packets are sent out the gateway of last resort, Serial 0/0/1?
• ip classless
• A router has the following entries in its routing table:
• S 192.168.0.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.128.2
• O 192.168.0.0/25 [110/2175] via 172.16.1.1, 00:02:15, FastEthernet0/1
• D 192.168.0.0/25 [90/22455] via 172.16.2.2, 00:12:15, Serial0/0/0
• R 192.168.0.0/26 [120/2] via 172.16.3.3, 00:00:15, Serial0/0/1

12. The router receives a packet that is destined for a host with the address 192.168.0.58. Which route would this router use to forward the packet?
• router use to forward the packet?
• the static route
• the OSPF route
• the EIGRP route
• the RIP route

13.What determines if the router implements a classless route lookup process?
• Child routes are present in the routing table.
• A classless routing protocol has been configured on the router.
• The command ip classless is enabled on the router.
• Multiple routes with different masks to the same destination are in the routing table.
• Routing table entries have a next-hop IP address and an exit interface for each child route.

14. What occurs when no ip classless is implemented on the router?
• The router will only support classful IP addressing.
• The router will only support classful routing protocols.
• The router will use a default route, if present, when a matching route is not found in the routing table.
• The router will assume it has knowledge of all subnets in the network and will not search beyond child
• routes for a better match.

15. Refer to the exhibit. The graphic contains partial contents of the routing table on router E. Router E is running version 12.3 of the IOS and is configured for default routing behavior. Router E receives a packet to forward. Which route in the routing table will be searched first and why?
• 172.16.1.0/25 because it is the first ultimate route
• 0.0.0.0/0 because it is the lowest network number
• 172.16.0.0/25 because it is the first level 1 route
• 172.18.0.0/15 because it has the shortest mask

16. A network is converged and the routing tables are complete. When a packet needs to be forwarded, what is the first criterion used to determine the best path in the routing table?
• the route with the smallest AD
• the route with the longest address and mask match to the destination
• the route with the highest bandwidth
• the route with the best combination of AD and lowest cost

17. Refer to the exhibit. What subnet mask will Router1 apply to child routes of the 172.16.0.0/24 network?
• 0.0.0.0
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.255

18. Refer to the exhibit. What protocol was used to distribute the routing information for the network 172.16.1.4?
• RIPv1
• RIPv2
• EIGRP
• OSPF

19. A route to a destination network is learned from multiple routing protocols. What is used by a Cisco router to select the preferred route to the destination that will be installed in the routing table?
• metric
• route prefix
• update timer
• administrative distance

ccna exploration 2 module 7

1. A network administrator has been told that the company IP address infrastructure must adhere to RFC 1918. What three IP address ranges from RFC 1918 could the administrator use on the network? (Choose three.)
• 10.0.0.0/8
• 172.16.0.0/12
• 192.168.0.0/16

2. Refer to the exhibit. Routers East and West are configured using RIPv1. Both routers are sending updates about their directly connected routes. The East router can ping the West router serial interface and West can ping the serial interface of East. However, neither router has dynamically learned routes from the other. What is most likely the problem?
• VLSM is not supported by RIPv1.

3. Refer to the exhibit. What effect will the commands that are shown have on RIP updates for Router1?
• Only version 2 updates are sent to 224.0.0.9.

4. Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output shown in the exhibit?
• The no auto-summary has not been configured on this router.

5. What are two reasons to implement RIP version 2 rather than RIP version 1? (Choose two.)
• RIP version 2 supports VLSM.
• RIP version 2 supports routing update authentication.

6. Refer to the exhibit. RIPv1 is configured as the routing protocol for the network that is shown. The following commands are used on each router:
• router rip
network 10.0.0.0
network 172.16.0.0

7. A network administrator installed four new routers that are running RIPv2. Router1 is a boundary router in the RIPv2 network and has a default route configured. Once the network has converged, the network administrator enters Router1(config-router)# default-information originate on Router1. How will this affect the network?
• propagates the default route to all routers in the network

8. Refer to the exhibit. A technician needs to add a new loopback interface to test routing functionality and network design. The technician enters the following set of commands on the router:
Sanford(config)# interface loopback1
Sanford(config-if)# ip address 192.168.6.62 255.255.255.252
• The network address for Loopback1 overlaps with an already configured interface address.

9. What is the maximum network diameter permitted by the default metric of RIPv2?
• 15 hops
|
10. What are two functions of the network command used when configuring routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• identifies which networks will be included in the routing updates
• determines which interfaces can send and receive routing updates

11. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIPv1. What changes will occur in the routing table of router B if a loopback interface with an address of 10.16.1.129/27 is configured on router B?
• A connected route to the 10.16.1.128/27 network is added.

12. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP version 2, why is there no route for the 192.168.1.32/27 network?
• Rip version 2 will auto summarize routes by default.

13. RIPv2 is the configured routing protocol on the routers in a network. The command Router(config-router)# no version 2 is entered on the routers. What effect does entering this command have on routing updates?
• Version 1 and 2 updates will be received and the version 2 updates will not be sent.

14. How are RIP v1 and RIP v2 similar to one another? (Choose three.)
• They both use hop count as a metric.
• They both have the same metric value for infinite distance.
• They both use split horizon to prevent routing loops.

15. Refer to the exhibit. The exhibited network contains a mixture of Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The command debug ip rip was entered on the JAX router. All routers are running the same version of RIP. Router CHI and Router ORL are not able to reach the 192.168.1.16/28 network. What is a possible solution to this problem?
• Configure RIPv2 on routers.

16. What field was added to the RIP message header by RFC 1723 to add support for VLSM and CIDR?
• Subnet mask

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which command on which router will allow Router1 to learn about the 192.168.0.0/20 network?
• Router2(config-router)# version 2

18. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
• Router1 will install a route to 192.168.0.0/20
• Router2 will not install a route to 192.168.16.0/20

19. Refer to the exhibit. All routers are running RIP version 2. JAX is configured to just advertise the 10.0.0.0/24 network. CHI is configured to advertise the 172.16.0.0/16 network. A network administrator enters the commands shown in the exhibit. What changes will occur in this network?
• The CHI router will install a route to the 192.168.0.0/16 network in its routing table.

20. Refer to the exhibit. Which command will allow Router2 to learn about the 192.168.16.0/28 network?
• Router1(config-router)# network 192.168.16.0

21. When this configuration is complete, users on the LAN of each router are unable to access the remote LANs. Why?
• RIPv1 is unable to route to discontiguous subnets of a major network.

ccna exploration 2 module 3

1. Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.)
• Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route.
• Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.

2. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly describes how R1 will determine the best path to R2?
• R1 will install an EIGRP route using network B in its routing table because the administrative distance of EIGRP is lower than RIP.

3. Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
• sends subnet mask information in routing updates
• allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology

4. Which command would the network administrator issue to determine if load balancing is in effect on a router?
• show ip route

5. Which statement is true regarding routing protocols?
• EIGRP uses DUAL to calculate the shortest path and can be configured to do unequal cost load balancing.

6. Which two conditions would create a setting where the use of a distance-vector routing protocol would be efficient? (Choose two.)
• the network is using a hub and spoke topology
• the network is using a flat design

7. What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
• It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.

8. Which of the following best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?
• hey send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.

9. Which of the following is associated with link-state routing protocols?
• shortest-path first calculations

10. Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?
• Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.

11. Which of the following conditions must be met in order for a network to have converged
• The routers in the network are operating with consistent routing knowledge.

12. Which two statements are true regarding metrics? (Choose two.)
• EIGRP uses bandwidth as a metric.
• OSPF uses cost based on bandwidth as a metric.

13. Which two statements are true regarding the advantages of the use of static routes? (Choose two).
• increased security
• the administrator maintains control over routing

14. The following line of code is displayed in a routing table:
R 209.165.201.0/24 [120/2] via 192.168.252.2, 00:00:16, S0/0/0
What can be concluded from this output?
• The value, 120, is used to determine the best path when a router has more than one routing protocol configured for the same destination network.

15. What will be the result of the following commands?
ORL(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
ORL(config-if)# ip address 172.16.3.1 255.255.255.0
ORL(config-if)# no shutdown
• A routing table entry is made to the 172.16.3.0 network with a code of "C".

16. An engineer creates a static route by entering the Router(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.2 command. What can be concluded about this route?
• The administrative distance of this route is 1.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Router1 and Router2 are running EIGRP. All interfaces are operational and packets can be forwarded between all networks. What information will be found in the routing table for Router1?
• The administrative distance of the route to network 172.16.0.0 will be 90.

18. The following line of code is present in the routing table:
O 10.16.1.0/27 [110/129] via 192.168.1.5, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/1
What does the number 129 indicate in this output?
• The cost for this link has a value of 129.

19. A growing medium-sized manufacturing company recently began to have routing instability issues. The company uses static routes and has a mixture of over 30 Cisco and non-Cisco routers. The network administrator has decided to convert the network to dynamic routing. What characteristics of protocols should be considered in this selection process?
• OSPF can be used between the routers.

20. Refer to the exhibit. If RIP is the routing protocol, what is the value of the metric from router A to network 192.168.5.0/24?
• 3

21. A router learns two paths with equal metrics to a destination network via the RIP routing protocol. How will the router handle packets to the destination network?
• The router will install both routes in the routing table and load balance between the two.

ccna exploration 1 final exam

1. Refer to the exhibit. Host B attempts to establish a TCP/IP session with host C. During this attempt, a frame was captured at the FastEthernet interface fa0/1 of the San Francisco router. The packet inside the captured frame has the source IP address 10.10.1.2, and the destination IP address is 10.31.1.20. What is the destination MAC address of the frame at the time of capture?
• 0060.7320.D632
• 0060.7320.D631
• 0040.8517.44C3
• 0009.B2E4.EE03
• 0010.C2B4.3421

2. What are three characteristics of CSMA/CD? (Choose three.)
• It monitors the media for presence of a data signal.
• After detecting a collision, hosts can resume transmission after a random timer has expired.
• A jam signal is used to ensure that all hosts are aware that a collision has occurred.
• Devices can be configured with a higher transmission priority.
• Data is transmitted only when the data signal is present.
• It uses a token system to avoid collisions.

3. Refer to the exhibit. The PC, the routing table of which is displayed, is configured correctly. To which network device or interface does the IP address 192.168.1.254 belong?
• PC
• switch
• router interface fa0/0
• router interface fa0/1

4. Refer to the exhibit. Host A wants to access the Internet. Which combination of a Layer 2 address and a Layer 3 address will enable this access from host A?
• Destination MAC: 0030.8596.DE83 Default gateway: 209.165.202.130
• Destination MAC: 0030.8596.DE82 Default gateway: 172.16.9.2
• Destination MAC: 0030.8517.44C4 Default gateway: 172.16.1.1
• Destination MAC: 0030.8517.44C4 Default gateway: 209.165.202.130

5. Refer to the exhibit. Communication between hosts X and Y is restricted to the local network. What is the reason for this?
• The gateway addresses are broadcast addresses.
• Host Y is assigned a multicast address.
• Host X and host Y belong to different networks.
• Host X is assigned a network address.

6. What is the result of using the clock rate 56000 command at the serial interface of the router?
• The interface is configured as a DCE device.
• The interface timers are cleared.
• The FastEthernet interface is made to emulate a serial interface by assigning it a timing signal.
• The IP address for the serial interface is configured.

7. Which three addresses belong to the category of public IP addresses? (Choose three.)
• 127.0.0.1
• 196.1.105.6
• 132.11.9.99
• 10.0.0.1
• 172.16.9.10
• 46.1.1.97
8. Which three statements are true about transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)
• TCP and UDP manage communication between multiple applications.
• TCP retransmits the packets for which the acknowledgment is not received.
• TCP acknowledges received data.
• UDP exchanges frames between the nodes of the network.
• TCP has no mechanism to acknowledge transmission errors.
• UDP uses windowing and sequencing to provide reliable transfer of data.

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which logical topology describes the exhibited network?
• star
• ring
• point-to-point
• multi-access

10. Which statement is true about the running configuration file in a Cisco IOS device?
• It affects the operation of the device immediately when modified.
• It is stored in NVRAM.
• It should be deleted using the erase running-config command.
• It is automatically saved when the router reboots.

11. Refer to the exhibit. Host C is able to ping 127.0.0.1 successfully, but is unable to communicate with hosts A and B in the organization. What is the likely cause of the problem?
• Hosts A and B are not on the same subnet as host C.
• The IP addresses on the router serial interfaces are wrong.
• The subnet mask on host C is improperly configured.
• The FastEthernet interface fa0/0 of router 1 is wrongly configured.

12. A host is transmitting a video over the network. How does the transport layer allow this host to use multiple applications to transmit other data at the same time as the video transmission?
• It uses error control mechanisms.
• It uses a connectionless protocol only for multiple simultaneous transmissions.
• It uses multiple Layer 2 source addresses.
• It uses multiple port numbers.

13. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is unable to access PC2. To troubleshoot this problem, the technician needs to confirm that the next hop interface is operational. Which default gateway address should the technician ping from PC1 to confirm this?
• 10.0.0.254
• 192.168.0.249
• 192.168.0.250
• 10.0.1.254

14. Refer to the exhibit. Cable 1 and Cable 2 are wired for specific physical layer requirements. Which three segments use Cable 2? (Choose three.)
• Segment 1
• Segment 2
• Segment 3
• Segment 4
• Segment 5
• Segment 6

15. Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts can be determined about the topology? (Choose two.)
• Three networks are needed.
• Two logical address ranges are required.
• A single broadcast domain is present.
• Three collision domains are present.
• Four networks are needed.

16. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the IP configuration that is displayed? (Choose three.)
• The assigned address is a private address.
• The PC cannot communicate with the DNS server.
• The network can have 126 hosts.
• The prefix of the computer address is /26.
• The IP address is routable on the Internet.
• The IP address is a multicast address.

17. Which password restricts Telnet access to the router?
• enable
• enable secret
• console
• VTY

18. Refer to the exhibit. To create the initial configuration, a network technician connected host A to the router using the connection that is shown. Which statement is true about this connection?
• It terminates at the Ethernet port of the router.
• It provides out-of-band console access.
• It terminates at the serial interface of the router.
• It requires a Telnet client on host A to access the router.

19. Which device should be used for routing a packet to a remote network?
• access switch
• DHCP server
• hub
• router

20. Refer to the exhibit. The serial interface of the router was configured with the use of the commands that are shown. The router cannot ping the router that is directly connected to interface serial 0/0/0. What should the network technician do to solve this problem?
• Configure the description at interface serial 0/0/0.
• Configure an IP address on interface serial 0/0/0.
• Remove the no shutdown command at interface serial 0/0/0
• Reboot the router.

21. Refer to the exhibit. In a network, host A is sending data segments to host B. The flow control of the segments that are being exchanged is displayed. Which two statements are true about this communication? (Choose two.)
• The initial window size is determined via the two-way handshake.
• The window size for the TCP session that is represented is initially set to 3000 bytes.
• Acknowledgment number 3001 indicates that host A will send the next segment with sequence number 3001.
• Host B expects that the next received segment number will be 3000.
• No more acknowledgments will be exchanged.

22. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to remotely access the CLI of the router from PC1 using modem 1. Which port of the router should be connected to modem 2 to enable this access?
• console
• Ethernet
• auxiliary
• serial

23. Which OSI layer uses a connection-oriented protocol to ensure reliable delivery of data?
• application layer
• presentation layer
• session layer
• transport layer

24. What are two functions of the data link layer? (Choose two.)
• It segments and reorders the data.
• It exchanges data between programs that are running on the source and destination hosts.
• It controls how data is placed onto the media.
• It generates signals to represent the bits in each frame.
• It encapsulates each packet with a header and a trailer to transfer it across the local media.

25. Refer to the exhibit. Which list refers only to end devices?
• D,E,F,G
• A,H,B,C
• A,D,E,F
• A,D,E,G

26. Refer to the exhibit. The diagram represents the process of sending e-mail between clients. Which list correctly identifies the component or protocol used at each numbered stage of the diagram?
• 1.MUA 2.MDA 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.POP 7.MDA 8.MUA
• 1.MUA 2.POP 3.MDA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.SMTP 8.MUA
• 1.MUA 2.POP 3.SMTP 4.MDA 5.MTA 6.SMTP 7.POP 8.MUA
• 1.MUA 2.SMTP 3.MTA 4.SMTP 5.MTA 6.MDA 7.POP 8.MUA

27. Refer to the exhibit. Host B was powered off. What change will occur in the MAC table of the switch?
The table will remain unaffected.
• The switch will remove the MAC address at Fa0/19 immediately.
• The switch will retain the MAC address until host B is powered on again.
• The switch will rebuild the MAC table by assigning the FFFF.FFFF.FFFF address to port Fa0/19.

28. Refer to the exhibit. A technician has connected the PC to the switch using a Category 6 UTP cable. Which two statements are true about this connection? (Choose two.)
• The cable that is used is an Ethernet crossover cable.
• The transmit pin of the cable is terminated to the receive pin.
• The maximum distance between the switch and the PC can be 100 m.
• The maximum supported bandwidth is 1000 Mb/s.
• The Category 6 cable simulates a point-to-point WAN link and is unusable for this type of connection.

29. Refer to the exhibit. A host is using NAT to connect to the Internet. Which three IP addresses enable this connection? (Choose three.)
• 10.1.1.63
• 10.1.1.37
• 10.1.1.39
• 10.1.1.32
• 10.1.1.60
• 10.1.1.2

30. Refer to the exhibit. A PC is communicating with another PC on a remote network. The two networks are connected by three routers. Which action will help to identify the path between the hosts?
• Use the ipconfig command at the host.
• Use the ipconfig/all command at the destination.
• Use the tracert command at the host.
• Use the ping command at the destination.

31. An organization wants to create a subnet of the IP network 172.16.0.0. This subnet will accommodate 1000 hosts. Which subnet mask should be assigned to this network?
• 255.255.0.0
• 255.255.248.0
• 255.255.252.0
• 255.255.254.0
• 255.255.255.0
• 255.255.255.128

32. Refer to the exhibit. A host is connected to hub 1. Which combination of IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway can allow this host to function in the network?
• IP address: 172.16.31.36 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
• IP address: 172.16.31.63 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
IP address: 172.16.31.29 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.248 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
• IP address: 172.16.31.32 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35
• IP address: 172.16.31.29 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.240 Default gateway: 172.16.30.1
• IP address: 172.16.31.37 Subnet mask: 255.255.255.224 Default gateway: 172.16.31.35

33. Refer to the exhibit. A technician uses the nslookup command on the PC and views the output that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the IP address of the primary domain name server configured at the host? (Choose two.)
• 192.168.1.99
• 192.168.2.100
• 10.10.10.32
• 192.168.1.5
• the IP address of the website resolver1.xyz.local

34. Which OSI layer offers ordered data reconstruction services?
• application layer
• network layer
• presentation layer
• session layer
• transport layer

35. Refer to the exhibit. All devices in the network use default configurations. How many logical address ranges are required in this topology?
• 2
• 3
• 4
• 5
• 6

36. The network administrator wants to install a private application on a server. Which range of port numbers is normally assigned to this application to make it accessible by clients?
• 0 to 255
• 49152 to 65535
• 1024 to 49151
• 0 to 1023

37. Because of a security violation, the router password must be changed. What information can be learned from these configuration entries? (Choose two.)
• Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# password arj15
Router(config-line)# login
• This configuration allows users to connect by using a modem.
• Users must specify which line, 0 or 4, they wish to connect to when making a connection.
• This configuration allows users to connect to the router via the use of the telnet command.
• This configuration allows five users to make simultaneous connections to this router.
• The configured password is automatically encrypted on the router.

38. Refer to the exhibit. Each media link is labeled. What type of cable should be used to connect the different devices?
• Connection 1 - rollover cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - crossover cable
• Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - crossover cable Connection 3 - rollover cable
• Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - rollover cable Connection 3 - straight-through cable
• Connection 1 - crossover cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - rollover cable
• Connection 1 - straight-through cable Connection 2 - straight-through cable Connection 3 - straight-through cable

39. Which two types of media are useful for connecting two devices separated by a distance of 500 meters? (Choose two.)
• 10 BASE-T
• 1000 BASE-TX
• 10 BASE-2
• 1000 BASE LX
• 1000 BASE-SX

40. Which information is used by the router to determine the path between the source and destination hosts?
• the host portion of the IP address
• the network portion of the IP address
• host default gateway address
• the MAC address

41. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the session information that is displayed? (Choose two.)
• This exchange is part of the three-way handshake.
• The destination port indicates that a Telnet session has been initiated.
• The source port does not support communication with the destination port that is listed.
• The destination port indicates that an SMTP session has been initiated.
• The protocol is a connection-oriented protocol.

42. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is accessing multiple servers. Which combination of port number and address will uniquely identify a particular process running on a specific server?
• MAC address of the server and port number of the service
• IP address of the host and port number of the service
• MAC address of the host and port number of the service
• IP address of the server and port number of the service

43. A network technician wants to configure an IP address on a router interface by using the ip address 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 command. Which prompt should the technician see when entering this command?
• Router>
• Router(config-if)#
• Router#
• Router(config)#

44. Refer to the exhibit. Host X is unable to communicate with host Y. Which command can be run at host X to determine which intermediary device is responsible for this failure?
• telnet 192.168.1.1
• ping 192.168.1.1
• ftp 192.168.1.1
• tracert 192.168.1.1

45. Refer to the exhibit. In a network, PC1 sends a message to PC2. The frame received at PC2 is shown. What information in this frame determines the correct destination application?
• timing and synchronization bits
• destination and source physical addresses
• destination and source logical network addresses
• destination and source process numbers

46. An organization has been assigned network ID 10.10.128.0 and subnet mask 255.255.224.0. Which IP address range can be used for this organization?
• 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.160.255
• 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.159.255
• 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.192.255
• 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.0.159
• 10.10.128.0 to 10.10.159.0

47. What is the effect of using the Router# copy running-config startup-config command on a router?
• The contents of ROM will change.
• The contents of RAM will change.
• The contents of NVRAM will change.
• The contents of flash will change.

48. Which three IPv4 addresses represent valid host addresses for a subnet? (Choose three.)
• 10.1.12.79/28
• 10.1.12.113/28
• 10.1.12.32/28
• 10.1.11.5/27
• 10.1.11.97/27
• 10.1.11.128/27

49. Refer to the exhibit. The NAT functionality of the router is enabled to provide Internet access to the PC. However, the PC is still unable to access the Internet. Which IP address should be changed to 209.165.201.1 to enable the PC to access the Internet?
• 192.168.1.191
• 192.168.1.101
• 192.168.1.1
• 192.168.1.254

50. Which three statements are true about network layer addressing? (Choose three.)
• It uniquely identifies each host.
• It assists in forwarding packets across internetworks.
• It uses a logical 32-bit IPv4 address.
• It is not a configurable address.
• It is a physical address.
• It identifies the host from the first part of the address.